dglatz50 dglatz50
  • 14-11-2016
  • Mathematics
contestada

Why is 3/8 of 40=15 a logical answer....not how to get the answer, but why my answer makes sense?

Respuesta :

GeorgiaRose1
GeorgiaRose1 GeorgiaRose1
  • 14-11-2016
Because 40÷8=5 and 5×3=15.
Answer Link

Otras preguntas

How were the elements of the friar's plan foreshadowed when the friar first appeared in the play? Why is their timing of the friar's plan critical?
what are the similarities and differences between the ten commandments and the declaration of independence??
in Rutherford's experiment, which of the following characteristics of the nucleus caused the particles to be deflected by the foil?
45% off of 42.70 as a a porportion how much do you save
How do you solve this?
A pure substance made of one kind of atom
∠1 ​ and ∠2 are supplementary. ∠1=124°∠2=(2x+4)° Select from the drop down menu to correctly answer the question. What is the value of x? 13 26 40 36 41
i need help with this please
Which of the following is a product of photosynthesis?the products of photosynthesis are sugar (glucose and oxygen?
The Chinese system of writing was designed to accommodate many different dialects T or F